Quick question on soaking nuts /reality check :-)
August 7, 2009 - 11:22am
Ok, I've been madly making all kinds of raw desserts and food for almost 2 year now. When I see a recipe line like the example below. I always measure out one cup of dry almonds and then soak them and use them in the recipe
1 cup almonds, soaked and drained
Now I'm starting to wonder (based on a few results) if this really means one cup of SOAKED and drained almonds (measuring after they have been soaked)
Can anyone help clarify this for me??
August 7, 2009 - 11:32am
#1
help :-)
August 7, 2009 - 11:41am
#2
i'm pretty sure it's before they are soaked. i don't think they would expect you to have a supply of soaked almonds ready for a recipe.
August 7, 2009 - 11:59am
#3
for the above example I am wondering if you would soak about 1/2 to 3/4 cup of dry almonds to yield 1 cup of soaked almonds.
August 7, 2009 - 12:05pm
#4
Without explanation, it *is* iffy. And, YES, I have seen recipes that specifically stated to soak and drain before measuring.
Every time I see nuts listed, I also wonder about that, if they don't explain which they mean. Unfortunately, it really depends on the author of the recipe.
August 7, 2009 - 2:19pm
#5
I think it is before. I would be too difficult to determine the amount to soak to get the desired amount needed after soaking.
August 7, 2009 - 4:44pm
#6
How I look at it is, if they say 1 cup almonds soaked and drained then it means measure before soaking. If it says 1 cup soaked almonds then I guess it is post soaking measurement and I soak about 3/4 of a cup to get the 1 cup soaked.
August 7, 2009 - 7:02pm
#7
I agree, Coconut Love, it "would be too difficult to determine the amount to soak to get the desired amount". Unfortunately, I have seen some recipes actually *state* it that way. (I wish I knew which ones, and where, so I could link them here.)
I stand by what I said. It is unfortunate, but it really depends on the author, and what they meant. The only way to be sure, is test it and hope it turns out right (or, if you can, ASK the author).
August 8, 2009 - 5:59am
#8
Thanks for the responses. It can be tricky but I think I'm all set now. And yes it can depend on the author too :-)
August 8, 2009 - 6:03am
#9
Joyce - your creations always look lovely, so I'm sure your doing everything right :)
August 9, 2009 - 2:19pm
#10
I also think it would depend on the author. Sometimes when I write a recipe I actually mean *after* they've been soaked...
http://www.healthyfoodrawdiet.com
August 11, 2009 - 6:49pm
#11
I agree with NancyK - consider ground flax seeds: "one tablespoon flax seed, ground" versus "one tablespoon ground flax seed."
Either way, I find the difference in volume between soaked and unsoaked to be not so significant it's going to ruin your recipe.
